This month, I sold half my Indian equity mutual funds and was researching funds to invest in. I was looking for something safe & long term.
As I was exploring 10-year Gilt Funds (mutual funds that invest in the Indian Government’s 10-year bond), I noticed that they had a pretty high yield – mostly over 10%.
I took a closer look at ICICI Prudential’s Constant Maturity Gilt Fund. (They had the lowest expense ratio.) The annualized returns over the last 5 years were 10.77%, and it’s never fallen below 10% in the last 5 years.
But the strange thing is that the underlying 10-year bond always yielded less than 10% in the last 10 years.
So, how does a mutual fund that buys only one bond yield more than that bond’s ever done in the last 10 years?
(I went ahead and invested. But this is going to worry me to no end.)

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